In this blogpost, I wrote about pandigital numbers (numbers in base n>1 that uses the numbers 0 to n-1 exactly once) that are also squares and a nice result of Adam Partridge that showed such square pandigital numbers do not exist if n is odd and n-1 has an even 2-adic valuation. A different approach to prove this result can be found in this article. It turns out that a similar result exists for oblong (or pronic) pandigital numbers.
Theorem: There are no oblong pandigital numbers in base n if n ≡ 3 (mod 4).
Proof: Since nᵃ ≡ 1 (mod n-1), k ≡ m (mod n-1), where m is the digit sum of k in base n. Thus for a number k with every digit exactly once, k ≡ n(n-1)/2 (mod n-1).
Suppose n ≡ 3 (mod 4), i.e. n=2q+1 for some odd q. Then n(n-1)/2 = 2q²+q. Since n-1 = 2q, this means that n(n-1)/2 ≡ q (mod n-1). As q is odd, m(m+1) is even and n-1 is even, this implies that m(m+1) ≠ q (mod n-1) and thus m(m+1) is not a number with every digit exactly once and the proof is complete.
Conjecture: There are oblong pandigital numbers in base n if n !≡ 3 (mod 4).